Ali Algebra Posted November 30, 2005 Share Posted November 30, 2005 Say we followed a Lunar Calender, and counted 12 months each year. (related to the moon and not related to the sun) How far would the moon travel in 12000 lunar orbits? And say an object that has very low mass, traveled that distance in a day. How fast would the object be going? Take into consideration: Lunar Month = 29.53059 days [synodic relative to sun] | 27.321661 days [sidereal relative to the stars] Terrestrial day = 24 hours [synodic relative to sun] | 23 h 56 min 4.0906 sec [sidereal relative to the stars] Is there anyone one here who can answer this question please? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
[Tycho?] Posted November 30, 2005 Share Posted November 30, 2005 This doesn't sound so much "cool" as "homework". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted November 30, 2005 Author Share Posted November 30, 2005 '']This doesn't sound so much "cool" as "homework". I can assure you it is not homework. Its just something I was thinking of the other day. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
danny8522003 Posted November 30, 2005 Share Posted November 30, 2005 Use the distance between the centre of the Earth to the moon to find the circumference of the orbit, then multiply by 12000 to get the distance. Then use v=d/t to get the velocity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 1, 2005 Author Share Posted December 1, 2005 Use the distance between the centre of the Earth to the moon to find the circumference of the orbit' date=' then multiply by 12000 to get the distance. Then use v=d/t to get the velocity.[/quote'] Is this right: 299795 Km/s? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jacques Posted December 1, 2005 Share Posted December 1, 2005 Mean distance: 384,400 km Asuming circular orbit and pi=3.14 384,400*2*pi * 12,000 => 28 968 384 000 km 28 968 384 000 km/day= 335 282 km/sec That is in the order of speed of light Using Lunar Month = 29.53059 days [synodic relative to sun] .95 km/sec Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 1, 2005 Author Share Posted December 1, 2005 Mean distance: 384' date='400 km Asuming circular orbit and pi=3.14 384,400*2*pi * 12,000 => 28 968 384 000 km 28 968 384 000 km/day= 335 282 km/sec That is in the order of speed of light Using Lunar Month = 29.53059 days [synodic relative to sun'] .95 km/sec That is amazing, It was exactly what I was thinking. But I was reluctant to say its almost the same as speed of light to honest with you I'm shocked. I think I've made an amazing discovery! YES!!! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
danny8522003 Posted December 1, 2005 Share Posted December 1, 2005 Why, nothing travels that distance in a day? (Apart from the obvious) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 1, 2005 Author Share Posted December 1, 2005 Why, nothing travels that distance in a day? (Apart from the obvious) Well in ancient text, supposedly the word of god. It is said that the Angles control all the affairs of god, and then god supposedly says that the angles travel 12000 lunar orbits in one-day and I've taken what is said taking into consideration that god had earlier in this text said angles are made of light, and also have very low mass. So to see if this was actually I thought well if angles are made of light then yeah they'll travail around about the same-speed as light. So I knew if the calculations were way off then this was not divine text. If you get what I mean. Anyway I'll be presenting it here soon, after I put everything into context. Oh it seems like I'll have to stop being an atheist! lol Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
danny8522003 Posted December 3, 2005 Share Posted December 3, 2005 Im somewhat skeptical... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted December 3, 2005 Share Posted December 3, 2005 i've seen this before.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Janus Posted December 3, 2005 Share Posted December 3, 2005 That is amazing' date=' It was exactly what I was thinking. But I was reluctant to say its almost the same as speed of light to honest with you I'm shocked. I think I've made an amazing discovery! YES!!![/quote'] I wouldn't call a nearly a 20% difference "as almost the same". That is like saying that 84 mph is is almost the same as 70 mph. (try telling that to a police officer the next time you are caught going going 84 down a freeway speed limited at 70.) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 4, 2005 Author Share Posted December 4, 2005 I wouldn't call a nearly a 20% difference "as almost the same". That is like saying that 84 mph is is almost the same as 70 mph. (try telling that to a police officer the next time you are caught going going 84 down a freeway speed limited at 70.) In mathematics, especially in set theory, when dealing with sets of infinite size, the term almost or nearly is used to mean all the elements except for finitely many. In other words, an infinite set S that is a subset of another infinite set L, is almost L if the subtracted set L\S is of finite size. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 4, 2005 Author Share Posted December 4, 2005 i've seen this[/url'] before.... Mine was not based on Islam, it was actually on ancient Sumerian text way before Islam and it wouldn't even be possible to even guess it. Seems like it was a divine revaluation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Janus Posted December 4, 2005 Share Posted December 4, 2005 In mathematics' date=' especially in set theory, when dealing with sets of infinite size, the term [b']almost[/b] or nearly is used to mean all the elements except for finitely many. In other words, an infinite set S that is a subset of another infinite set L, is almost L if the subtracted set L\S is of finite size. We're not talking set theory, we are talking physics, and in physics, a 20% variance is huge and not considered "almost the same". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 4, 2005 Author Share Posted December 4, 2005 We're not talking set theory, we are talking physics, and in physics, a 20% variance is huge[/i'] and not considered "almost the same". When you've been proven wrong then you should just admit to it. Not make excuses. We were talking about numbers, specifically. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jacques Posted December 4, 2005 Share Posted December 4, 2005 I used circular orbit with average radius. I used pi=3.14 Maybe if try with more precisse value... Me too I saw that in an islamic site Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cap'n Refsmmat Posted December 4, 2005 Share Posted December 4, 2005 When you've been proven wrong then you should just admit to it. Not make excuses. We were talking about numbers, specifically. Janus made a valid point. Don't dismiss it, you're being hypocritical. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ali Algebra Posted December 4, 2005 Author Share Posted December 4, 2005 I used circular orbit with average radius. I used pi=3.14Maybe if try with more precisse value... Me too I saw that in an islamic site Interesting. I'm also thinking gravity will actually come into play when you do the calculations and trying to come to a accurate figure. Anyone? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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