--00-- Posted November 13, 2005 Share Posted November 13, 2005 i was wondering if somebody had any ideas about this: the gradient of a horizontal line = 0 the gradient of a vertical line = infinity but the product of the gradients of perpendicular lines is -1 so does that mean that 0 x infinity = -1 ??? ... or is there something in the proof for the product of the gradients equalling -1 which excludes it for these values? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

BigMoosie Posted November 13, 2005 Share Posted November 13, 2005 The limit of x->infinity multiplied by limit of y->0 from below is -1, but the gradient of a vertical line is undefined. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

matt grime Posted November 13, 2005 Share Posted November 13, 2005 but the product of the gradients of perpendicular lines is -1 it is? but that would require infinity to be a real number, which it isn't. (that is to say this result is only true if both gradients are defined, and infinity is not acceptable in this context) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

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