jv1 Posted April 6 Share Posted April 6 Part 1 Laser range finder needs three components for proper operation. Those are emitter ,target and receiver . The emitter fires the beam into the target and receiver measure the time needed for beam to come back. We assume that beams travel in one line ,but that is not the case. The beam traveling to target and beam coming back from target are not traveling in the same line. With distance between emitter and receiver the beams create the triangle. Angle Alfa is the angle between beams. This is very important part of function of laser range finder. The angle Alfa is increasing the distance between emitter and target compare to no angle (straight line ) path if the beams were traveling on the same line. This increase in distance will crate time dilation To. This time dilation has to be considered in laser range finder distance computing . The laser travels at speed of light c and even the smallest time dilation will impact the precision of distance measured. The tangent function of angle Alfa Is equal to distance of emitted beam over distance of receiving beam. For Alfa angle of 0 degrees Tan Alfa =d emitting/d receiving Tan Alfa =1 d=v/t d =c/ t Total time t=to+To to- time for beam to travel to target and back in straight line To - time dilation caused by angle Alfa ( the distance between emitter and receiver). t=total time For distance to be true dilation time To has to be subtracted from to time. This is time dilation is the most overlook thing when studying laser range finders. The laser range finder works in few situations : 1)transmitter /receiver and target not moving 2) transmitter/receiver or target are moving 3)both target and receiver / transmitter moving. There is couple of more theoretical situations: 1)Situation The emitter and target are not moving relative to each other and they are positioned at distance d1 from each other. The receiver is not moving and is positioned at distance d2 from emitter/ target assembly. The angle Alfa between beam traveling from emitter to target and beam traveling from target to receiver Is tangent function of d1/d2 If the distance d1=d2=3x10e8m The time for beams travel both distances will be the same . There is going to be no time dilation. The tangent angle Alfa is 1 Angle Alfa os 45 degrees The receiver has to be positioned at distance d1=d2 at angle of 45 degrees. Let’s call this position position number 1 Position 1 can be put on any position made by circle drawn from location of target including the original path between emitter and receiver . Let’s call this circle - ORIGINAL circle. If the receiver is positioned on any distance outside of this circle there is going to be difference in distances d1 and d2 This is going to crate time dilation To It received is moving at any speed from0 to c , if the receiver is out of this ORIGINAL circle There is going to be time delay. If the receiver is moving on ORIGINAL circle time delay will be To=0 If this system is applied to : Flash light in the train cart is emitter Mirror is target The observer outside of train cart is receiver . We can say time dilation is caused by ONLY ANE ONLY by change of distance between emitter and receiver . The distance target is constant (3x10e8m) Part 2 Stationary clock moves at speed Vo The very delicate spring gear assembly is calibrated to push clock hand with certain mass at speed of 6 degrees per second . When another clock with the same calibration is moving at speed -V1 The momentum of clock hand increases. The momentum of gears inside the clock mechanism is increased. Finally tuned force on clock wound spring is not capable to push clock hand at speed of 6 degrees per sec. The hand of clock moves slower. There is no relativistic mass . There is only mass and angular and linear momentum. Part 3 The speed of light is the fastest speed possible in universe because the amount of energy given to all universe is given to us by big bang. We are moving at frictionless nothingness, and the biggest speed Will have the object with the smallest mass. Any object with bigger mass will have smaller speed . We can theoretically calculate the amount of energy needed to push mass at speed of light or over. But it will be only theoretical possibility . In reality big bang energy is all we got. Conclusion Theory of traltivutyb is not perfect And a lots of people disprove it . If this few overlooked points are considered by competent people The theory of relativity will be Borderline acceptable for everybody. Tx Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Janus Posted April 6 Share Posted April 6 1 hour ago, jv1 said: We can say time dilation is caused by ONLY ANE ONLY by change of distance between emitter and receiver . T The very delicate spring gear assembly is calibrated to push clock hand with certain mass at speed of 6 degrees per second . When another clock with the same calibration is moving at speed -V1 The momentum of clock hand increases. The momentum of gears inside the clock mechanism is increased. Finally tuned force on clock wound spring is not capable to push clock hand at speed of 6 degrees per sec. The hand of clock moves slower. There is no relativistic mass . There is only mass and angular and linear momentum. The speed of light is the fastest speed possible in universe because the amount of energy given to all universe is given to us by big bang. We are moving at frictionless nothingness, and the biggest speed Will have the object with the smallest mass. Any object with bigger mass will have smaller speed . We can theoretically calculate the amount of energy needed to push mass at speed of light or over. But it will be only theoretical possibility . In reality big bang energy is all we got. Point 1 is wrong. Time dilation is not due to a change in difference between emitter and receiver. Such a difference change produces a Doppler shift, which is a separate effect. Time dilation is where two reference frames measure different time intervals between two events. So, for example, if you had two emitter/receiver setups. Each with a constant and equal distance between each respective pair, and these two setups were in motion, Then an observer at rest with respect to either of the setups would note that the time intervals between transmission and reception would differ between the setups. Point 2 is also incorrect. In such a mechanism, the purpose of the wound spring to to counter losses due to friction. It doesn't take any force to keep something moving at a fixed angular speed. If you were to remove friction from the example, the hand, once moving, would just continue to rotate on its own without any further input of force. This would not change due to the overall motion of the mechanism. The clock hand would be measured as moving slower by someone that the mechanism is moving with respect to, but this is due to their measuring time intervals differently, and not due to some mechanical effect acting on the mechanism. Point 3 is, again, incorrect. c is the "speed limit" in the universe because it is an invariant speed. If something ( like light) is moving at c, then everyone measures the light as moving at c with respect to themselves, regardless of the relative velocity differences between those doing the measuring the light. A universal speed limit equal to this invariant speed automatically follows due to its mere existence. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

swansont Posted April 6 Share Posted April 6 6 hours ago, jv1 said: The very delicate spring gear assembly is calibrated to push clock hand with certain mass at speed of 6 degrees per second . When another clock with the same calibration is moving at speed -V1 The momentum of clock hand increases. The momentum of gears inside the clock mechanism is increased. Finally tuned force on clock wound spring is not capable to push clock hand at speed of 6 degrees per sec. The hand of clock moves slower. Who measures time in such experiments with a spring-driven clock with gears? Mechanical clocks lack the necessary precision. But time dilation is symmetric. Clock 1 will run slow compared to clock 2, from clock 2”s perspective. How can a mechanical effect have a clock run both fast and slow? It can’t. Time dilation isn’t a mechanical effect It sounds like you think there is an absolute rest frame. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 7 Author Share Posted April 7 Hi thank you so much for finding time to answer . Here is closer explanation of part 1 part 1 Theory of relativity is the first system in history which can be described as range finding device using electromagnetic waves. Dilation of time is the easiest to explain if beside the speed value of distance is put in calculation . The distance between light source (emiter) to mirror (target ) positioned at angle of 45 degrees is d=3d10e8m Distance from mirror to observer (receiver ) is d=3x10e8m Case 1 At rest time of 1 second is needed to travel from emiter to target and 1 second to travel from target to receiver. Hete is a overlook : when light beam deflect from mirror it delays the the phase for 90 degrees . Case 2 when emiter and target start moving at speed v away from The receiver the distance between receiver and target is increased in one second by distance of d delay =v x 1 second Time dilation for light to reach the observer will be d delay/ c=T dilation The light beam phase shift will cause what we call today red shift effect. Conclusion there is no relativistic time or I owe Mr Einstein a big apology. In radius distance of 3x10r8 the angle Alfa between light waves is 45 degrees When angle Alfa is 0 degrees we have standard set up for time dilation only diference is that angle of mirror(target ) will be 0 the targeting laser pods in aviation work on this 360 degree principle . Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

exchemist Posted April 7 Share Posted April 7 6 hours ago, jv1 said: Hi thank you so much for finding time to answer . Here is closer explanation of part 1 part 1 Theory of relativity is the first system in history which can be described as range finding device using electromagnetic waves. Dilation of time is the easiest to explain if beside the speed value of distance is put in calculation . The distance between light source (emiter) to mirror (target ) positioned at angle of 45 degrees is d=3d10e8m Distance from mirror to observer (receiver ) is d=3x10e8m Case 1 At rest time of 1 second is needed to travel from emiter to target and 1 second to travel from target to receiver. Hete is a overlook : when light beam deflect from mirror it delays the the phase for 90 degrees . Case 2 when emiter and target start moving at speed v away from The receiver the distance between receiver and target is increased in one second by distance of d delay =v x 1 second Time dilation for light to reach the observer will be d delay/ c=T dilation The light beam phase shift will cause what we call today red shift effect. Conclusion there is no relativistic time or I owe Mr Einstein a big apology. In radius distance of 3x10r8 the angle Alfa between light waves is 45 degrees When angle Alfa is 0 degrees we have standard set up for time dilation only diference is that angle of mirror(target ) will be 0 the targeting laser pods in aviation work on this 360 degree principle . You owe Einstein an apology then. As has been already pointed out, you have no relative motion between any of the components in this setup, so time dilation does not occur anywhere. Look up time dilation and re-establish what it is, before you go any further. You are speaking here about time delay, which is not time dilation. Secondly, the phase shift on reflection of a wave is 180 deg, not 90deg and it is not a red shift, as it does not alter the frequency. Thirdly, this sort of nonsense is starting to have a familiar smell to me. I'm wondering whether neurological reference frames are more your thing............ 😁 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 7 Author Share Posted April 7 Thank you so much for finding time to answer. here are two pictures from dr Don Lincoln you tube episode about Lorentz factor time dilation . for the time period of one second the velocity = distance in bottom picture the theory of relativity is used and time dilation is calculated . and it is proven milion time over. the value of velocity in time if one second is used. the top picture is Newtonian classical physics way ti do it . if DISTANCE value per time if one second is used the real daily if time dilation calculated will be the same . The time dilation can be calculated using both theory of relativity and Newtonian classical physics. the diference is distance us scalar and velocity is vector quantity. Fir time dilation - or time delay calculation one can get away with this but to calculating mass - vector is very very important part . This is the only overlook in theory of relativity- but the most important one. in the early twentieth century there was no laser range finders and I understand that scientists were not able to see that in one second velocity and distance have the same value. But in 1960 or so laser range finding device was patented. What is our excuse? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 7 Share Posted April 7 (edited) Your not going to find time dilation using your setup your using a setup that can be described under Galilean relativity as well as the Lorentz transforms. It was once thought Galilean relativity was usable for all speeds up to c. So the mathematics works on paper. However actual measurements showed the error not thought experiments. It is when you actually perform the tests that you realize that there is an error in the Galilean relativity calculations. Also you need to recognize both the above are under constant velocity. Any change in direction results in acceleration just as a change in velocity. So additional transformations are involved . However from what I read so far I suggest you study Galilean relativity as well as apply vector algebra before tackling the Lorentz transforms. You will learn the only difference between the two is the Gamma correction for length contraction in the direction of motion typically assigned x axis and the interval for time. Edited April 7 by Mordred Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 7 Author Share Posted April 7 Thank you for the input Here is my point of view. The gamma factor at v=c is infinity. Here is drawing of set up to measure time dilation using Newtonian physics . from this we can see that this is actually one turn of helix trayectory this mass is moving on shown in 2D we do not have to use lotentz transformation. From angle Alfa -angle where tan angle Alfa =v/c from this we can find components for length of helix for 360 degrees - one turn of trayectory. The v tangent velocity of mass moving around observer . From angle Alfa we can find components of linear and angular speed of velocity v from these two components we can calculate the angular and linear momentum of mass moving relative to the observer If you do that you will se that relativistic mass is actually not increase of mass - it is the increase of angular momentum overlooked . Newtonian physics will do this part faster . but theory of relativity does everything else better . That is why I said that theory of relativity will be borderline acceptable (it was joke) If this idea is looked over by somebody competent . Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Janus Posted April 7 Share Posted April 7 The issue with time dilation descriptions like the one with the train and embankment is that they often miss a critical point, since they generally focus on the embankment observer alone. So let's consider both observers. We start with two colocated light clocks, 1 stationary to our reference frame and one in motion. In these animations, the yellow dot is the pulse of light bouncing between the mirrors. The expanding circles are radiating outward at c, and act as reference showing that each pulse is moving at c relative to the frame of reference. Animation 1 is the from the frame in which the red clock is stationary. As can be seen, the red light clock ticks faster than the blue clock. If, for instance, the round trip for the red clock takes 1 micro second, it takes longer than that for the blue clock to complete one round trip. But what if there were someone "riding along" with the Blue clock? What would be happening according to them? This is what Animation 2 shows Since light travels at c in all inertial reference frames, In this frame, it is the Blue clock that takes 1 microsecond per round trip, and the red clock that ticks slower. Keep in mind, we have changed nothing from the previous animation other than switching observers. And there is no reason to prefer Red's perspective of events over Blue's or vice-versa. Both are equally valid. The two frames just measure time differently. This is the essence of Relativity. 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 7 Author Share Posted April 7 The first thing about train and flash light I said that it can be explained with both Newtonian and theory of relativity approach- before that everybody says that time dilation can not be explained with classical physics - correct? I hope I showed that using the distance not speed it is posible to describe time dilation calculating the distance . if time is measured from moment the light left the object A and reached object B if both objects are moving the most important thing is velocity V between them . the speed of light is just measure - comparator for distance (like light years)just opposite. like lessor beam directed to golf flag- in one second the distance will be time divided with 3x10 e 8 meters(distance) the l speed v is tangential speed on trayectory at which moving object moves relative to stationary object. the time and is the same . in one second from tangent function from v/c which is constant for hole universe - proven by theory if realtivity- will show us Tan v/c = 0 v= 0 both objects are moving in the same line - in linear direction - light signal can be a beam or edited in 360 directions dies not matter. one object is in front of the other The distance between them is constant - time is constant- but the velocity is constant . the red shift and blue shift just tell us is object A in front or back. All tangential velocity is spent on linear motion. Tangent v/c=0 to one infinity the objects are helix trajectory the tangential velocity is spent on rotational motion (angular component ) and linear motion (linear component) If A object is observer the helix will have bigger linear component and smaller angular components If b object is observer helix velocity components are reversed. tan v/c is infinity It does not meant that the mass is infinity it means that object is rotating around each other in circular trayectory the earth is rotating around sun in reality becouse if different mass but for us sun looks like it rotates in circle around us . theory of relativity explained and experimentally confirmed much more than classic physics. so the theory of relativity with this overlook properly remedied will be as I joked at part three borderline acceptable even for the worst critics Cheers -1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 8 Author Share Posted April 8 Here is a bit better explanation what is connection between theeiy of relativity and laser range finder . Range finder emited and receiver are not on the same line there is a small angle we are going to call angle alfa between sent and return signals. in one second signal travels distance of 3x10e8 this angle is so small that we ignore it. now if the distances become bigger it can not be ignored. for example height radio altimeters on the aircraft. Let’s see flash light ,vaginitis and observer in this set up instead of flesh light we will use light bulb. and both observer and mirror will be disco balls and one is positioned at distance 3x10e8 (mirror) and the other disco ball distance changes from 0 to 3x10e8m . the distances are perpendicular to each other (mimicking flash light,mirror observer). the light wave leaving the light bulb is circular wave and it spreads 360 degrees in xyz directions from light bulb. now we are pressing the stop watch button and we are going to follow only one light wave - signal signal reaching the disco ball at 3x10r8 distance is constant and it will be our comparative signal. in our case the distance is 3x10e8 and Time is 1 s the same signal travels to observer disco ball at distance d=0to 3x10e8 The time the signal reaches the observer is t=d(from to 3x10e8)/ c These two distance are sides of triangle with 90 degrees angle Between them.sides a and b The distance from observer (disco ball) to mirror disco ball can be calculated as hypotenuse. the angle between distance to observer and distance to mirror Tangent function is tan Alfa=d mirror /d observer OVERLOOK In quadrant 3x10e8 x3x10e8 in time of one second velocity and distance have the same value. If the sides of signal triangle length (abC) where a=v b=3x10e8 C^2=v^2x9x10^16 are seen as distance (m) the tan Alfa =c/v if the abC are seen as velocity (m/s) the tan Alfa =gama(lorentz factor) if the distance observer is bigger than 3x10e 8 only clasic physics approach will work. now please,go back to the beginning of this thread and you will see that theroy of relativity is original electromagnetic range Finder. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

exchemist Posted April 8 Share Posted April 8 2 hours ago, jv1 said: Here is a bit better explanation what is connection between theeiy of relativity and laser range finder . Range finder emited and receiver are not on the same line there is a small angle we are going to call angle alfa between sent and return signals. in one second signal travels distance of 3x10e8 this angle is so small that we ignore it. now if the distances become bigger it can not be ignored. for example height radio altimeters on the aircraft. Let’s see flash light ,vaginitis and observer in this set up instead of flesh light we will use light bulb. and both observer and mirror will be disco balls and one is positioned at distance 3x10e8 (mirror) and the other disco ball distance changes from 0 to 3x10e8m . the distances are perpendicular to each other (mimicking flash light,mirror observer). the light wave leaving the light bulb is circular wave and it spreads 360 degrees in xyz directions from light bulb. now we are pressing the stop watch button and we are going to follow only one light wave - signal signal reaching the disco ball at 3x10r8 distance is constant and it will be our comparative signal. in our case the distance is 3x10e8 and Time is 1 s the same signal travels to observer disco ball at distance d=0to 3x10e8 The time the signal reaches the observer is t=d(from to 3x10e8)/ c These two distance are sides of triangle with 90 degrees angle Between them.sides a and b The distance from observer (disco ball) to mirror disco ball can be calculated as hypotenuse. the angle between distance to observer and distance to mirror Tangent function is tan Alfa=d mirror /d observer OVERLOOK In quadrant 3x10e8 x3x10e8 in time of one second velocity and distance have the same value. If the sides of signal triangle length (abC) where a=v b=3x10e8 C^2=v^2x9x10^16 are seen as distance (m) the tan Alfa =c/v if the abC are seen as velocity (m/s) the tan Alfa =gama(lorentz factor) if the distance observer is bigger than 3x10e 8 only clasic physics approach will work. now please,go back to the beginning of this thread and you will see that theroy of relativity is original electromagnetic range Finder. ......."vaginitis".......... 🤪 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 8 Share Posted April 8 (edited) 5 hours ago, jv1 said: Here is a bit better explanation what is connection between theeiy of relativity and laser range finder . Range finder emited and receiver are not on the same line there is a small angle we are going to call angle alfa between sent and return signals. in one second signal travels distance of 3x10e8 this angle is so small that we ignore it. now if the distances become bigger it can not be ignored. for example height radio altimeters on the aircraft. Let’s see flash light ,vaginitis and observer in this set up instead of flesh light we will use light bulb. and both observer and mirror will be disco balls and one is positioned at distance 3x10e8 (mirror) and the other disco ball distance changes from 0 to 3x10e8m . the distances are perpendicular to each other (mimicking flash light,mirror observer). the light wave leaving the light bulb is circular wave and it spreads 360 degrees in xyz directions from light bulb. now we are pressing the stop watch button and we are going to follow only one light wave - signal signal reaching the disco ball at 3x10r8 distance is constant and it will be our comparative signal. in our case the distance is 3x10e8 and Time is 1 s the same signal travels to observer disco ball at distance d=0to 3x10e8 The time the signal reaches the observer is t=d(from to 3x10e8)/ c These two distance are sides of triangle with 90 degrees angle Between them.sides a and b The distance from observer (disco ball) to mirror disco ball can be calculated as hypotenuse. the angle between distance to observer and distance to mirror Tangent function is tan Alfa=d mirror /d observer OVERLOOK In quadrant 3x10e8 x3x10e8 in time of one second velocity and distance have the same value. If the sides of signal triangle length (abC) where a=v b=3x10e8 C^2=v^2x9x10^16 are seen as distance (m) the tan Alfa =c/v if the abC are seen as velocity (m/s) the tan Alfa =gama(lorentz factor) if the distance observer is bigger than 3x10e 8 only clasic physics approach will work. now please,go back to the beginning of this thread and you will see that theroy of relativity is original electromagnetic range Finder. It's still an experimental setup designed not to show any time dilation one that has unnecessary steps. Simply take a transmitter or reciever and move it further away from the sender/reciever at near c. You require relative velocity on the distance rate of change between sender and reciever. Quite frankly the scenario I just described is a common example in textbooks. You won't get time dilation unless either the transmitter or reciever has a relativistic velocity. You seem to be implying you get time dilation in a static setup. (Which is likely not your intention ) but the transformation formulas between Galilean relativity and Lorentz are near identical with the exception of the Gamma factor. Study the Lorentz transformations here and then revisit your setup. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_transformation Start with the simple setup before you get into angle changes and an event following a circle (acceleration) which leads to Lorentz boosts (rapidity) Edited April 8 by Mordred Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 8 Author Share Posted April 8 Thank you so much for finding time to look over and comment. I would like to point out one thing nobody is asking about and I would like to have your attention to it at time frame of 1 second velocity and distance have the same value. the way gama(Lorentz ) is derived from relationship between the vectors of speed. the vectors of speed have the same value as scalar distances. ANY speed in any set up to calculate time dilation is not changing . c is constant v we are using is constant I repeat in time frame if 1 sec the speed of C is equal 3x10e8m/s the distance dc=3x10e8m the speed v =dv This is constant in eny experiment for time dialtion - at any speed Alfa angle will have same value for speed vectors and for scalar d distances Tan Alfa=c/v For both velocity and distance Time t c=dc/c or tv=c/c=1s Time tv=dv/c At speeds close to c the angle Alfa will be about 45 degrees what is the tangent of angle 45 it is one does anybody see that all calculations do not have to be done with speed you just measure the time and multiple by speed of light If one has a closer look the at distance of 3x10e8 observer is not going to see the light in one second of observer is stationary if observer moves at speed of light he will see the light beam in 0 seconds the distances in experimental set up are extremely important and in every experiment - nobody even mentions distance . again the distance and speed are the same at 1 second time frame Thank you so much for finding time to look over and comment. I would like to point out one thing nobody is asking about and I would like to have your attention to it at time frame of 1 second velocity and distance have the same value. the way gama(Lorentz ) is derived from relationship between the vectors of speed. the vectors of speed have the same value as scalar distances. ANY speed in any set up to calculate time dilation is not changing . c is constant v we are using is constant I repeat in time frame if 1 sec the speed of C is equal 3x10e8m/s the distance dc=3x10e8m the speed v =dv This is constant in eny experiment for time dialtion - at any speed Alfa angle will have same value for speed vectors and for scalar d distances Tan Alfa=c/v For both velocity and distance Time t c=dc/c or tv=c/c=1s Time tv=dv/c At speeds close to c the angle Alfa will be about 45 degrees what is the tangent of angle 45 it is one does anybody see that all calculations do not have to be done with speed you just measure the time and multiple by speed of light If one has a closer look the at distance of 3x10e8 observer is not going to see the light in one second of observer is stationary if observer moves at speed of light he will see the light beam in 0 seconds the distances in experimental set up are extremely important and in every experiment - nobody even mentions distance . again the distance and speed are the same at 1 second time frame I am really hoping that somebody will see that here os something very different thatbis formula for time dilation when velocity =distance Opinions ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 8 Share Posted April 8 (edited) 2 hours ago, jv1 said: you just measure the time and multiple by speed of light I The reason why I asked you to look over the Lorentz equations again is that is precisely what used the "Interval" \[t=(ct)\] it is usually just shortened to t. With that you already tallied the distance.... Multiple lasers at different angles and observer points is already done in GR. The Interval is already included. Nothing in your experi.ent adds anything new that hasn't already been done on an experimental basis. You simply have to properly understand it. Believe me it's far more easier to use velocity particularly once you start using instantaneous velocity for acceleration. Of course you can also do so using rapidity under the Lorentz boosts but most ppl don't know how to use tensors for that. There are very good reasons velocity is used. For example using velocity then \(\gamma\) is simply a constant of proportionality. Of course the other details is that you also have length contraction as well as time dilation both occur at the same time Edited April 8 by Mordred Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 8 Author Share Posted April 8 Ok I just would like to add one more formula for time dilation in period of 1 sec when distance =velocity t’=t/ √(1-1/t^2) -1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 8 Share Posted April 8 (edited) 17 minutes ago, jv1 said: Ok I just would like to add one more formula for time dilation in period of 1 sec when distance =velocity t’=t/ √(1-1/t^2) That alone tells me what your doing is incorrect. Let me guess you never factored in length contraction ? The Lorentz transforms include both so if v=c d=0. Hence it's not a valid frame of reference. It is also the primary reason massless particles follow null geodesics. The "null" indicates this relation. Edited April 8 by Mordred Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 9 Author Share Posted April 9 I am claiming that time is point and it cannot have dilation Mathematically we calculated time dialtion but it actually dilation of electromagnetic wave - light in one second electromagnetic light from sphere with diameter 4x10e-12 is dilating to sphere of size with diameter 3x10e8 When both observers do not move there is no time dilation if signal is sent (light bulb) it will travel at speed of ligjy And time needed to racy is 1 second time dialtion - or dilation of wave will be infinity. at distance of radius infinity is circle or in 3D sphere with diameter of 3x10e8 In this set up theory of realty is the original electromagnetic range finder. when objects move they BEND the buble (electromagnetic wave everything else in theory of relativity is perfect This is the overlook I am talking about . The infinify for circle with radius r=3x10e8 is infinity -3 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Janus Posted April 9 Share Posted April 9 2 hours ago, jv1 said: I am claiming that time is point and it cannot have dilation Mathematically we calculated time dialtion but it actually dilation of electromagnetic wave - light in one second electromagnetic light from sphere with diameter 4x10e-12 is dilating to sphere of size with diameter 3x10e8 When both observers do not move there is no time dilation if signal is sent (light bulb) it will travel at speed of ligjy And time needed to racy is 1 second time dialtion - or dilation of wave will be infinity. at distance of radius infinity is circle or in 3D sphere with diameter of 3x10e8 In this set up theory of realty is the original electromagnetic range finder. when objects move they BEND the buble (electromagnetic wave everything else in theory of relativity is perfect This is the overlook I am talking about . The infinify for circle with radius r=3x10e8 is infinity This is nothing but a bunch of half-baked ideas based on misconceptions, and all it shows is that you don't have the faintest understanding of Relativity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

exchemist Posted April 9 Share Posted April 9 19 minutes ago, Janus said: This is nothing but a bunch of half-baked ideas based on misconceptions, and all it shows is that you don't have the faintest understanding of Relativity. Yup. A very familiar timewasting technique, I think. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 9 Share Posted April 9 (edited) 1 hour ago, Janus said: This is nothing but a bunch of half-baked ideas based on misconceptions, and all it shows is that you don't have the faintest understanding of Relativity. Yup agreed let's reinvent physics Edited April 9 by Mordred Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 9 Author Share Posted April 9 Hi thanks for the coment it looks a bit unusual but it is hard to explain a lot in a short period of time here is the thing the v^2 /c^2 padtbif gama of Lorentz factor v- is distance c - is speed and speed (ratio ) changing distance is time now speed(ratio) of changing dilation of object is called K What theroy big relativity calls time dilation is actually Koeficient K for dialtion of electromagnetic waves this is the final thing. To repeat this is posible becouse in time of one second velocity c -m/s distance c -m acceleration c-m/s^2 it is constant and it has value 3x10e8 i hope this all make sense now cheers Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

exchemist Posted April 9 Share Posted April 9 33 minutes ago, jv1 said: Hi thanks for the coment it looks a bit unusual but it is hard to explain a lot in a short period of time here is the thing the v^2 /c^2 padtbif gama of Lorentz factor v- is distance c - is speed and speed (ratio ) changing distance is time now speed(ratio) of changing dilation of object is called K What theroy big relativity calls time dilation is actually Koeficient K for dialtion of electromagnetic waves this is the final thing. To repeat this is posible becouse in time of one second velocity c -m/s distance c -m acceleration c-m/s^2 it is constant and it has value 3x10e8 i hope this all make sense now cheers ZZZzzzzzz………… Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

Mordred Posted April 9 Share Posted April 9 1 hour ago, jv1 said: Hi thanks for the coment it looks a bit unusual but it is hard to explain a lot in a short period of time here is the thing the v^2 /c^2 padtbif gama of Lorentz factor v- is distance c - is speed and speed (ratio ) changing distance is time now speed(ratio) of changing dilation of object is called K What theroy big relativity calls time dilation is actually Koeficient K for dialtion of electromagnetic waves this is the final thing. To repeat this is posible becouse in time of one second velocity c -m/s distance c -m acceleration c-m/s^2 it is constant and it has value 3x10e8 i hope this all make sense now cheers Big mistake however is assuming tine dilation is only electromagnetic. It affects every interaction of every force and every particle to particle interaction not just EM. That isn't nearly the only mistakes but to point everyone out will take far too long. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

jv1 Posted April 9 Author Share Posted April 9 Thanks again A bit more about K when dilation factor K is infinity the body can not dilate (getting more big) at speed of light Lorentz factor is infinity that means that ripple if met with a obstacle (particle/ proton) at speed of light it can not expand (dilate ) the next ripple piles up and the next the electromagnetic waves do not have mass but they carry the moment. and a lots of little moments act like a bigger mass and they will push back at bigger bodies bigger the push back That is what theory of relativity is showing the best part it does not know that yet Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...

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