Dhamnekar Win,odd Posted August 14, 2022 Share Posted August 14, 2022 (edited) Is the above intuitive explanation of "why the inequality [math] P(A_2|A_1) > P(A_1)[/math] is true" correct? Edited August 14, 2022 by Dhamnekar Win,odd corrected answer replaced Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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