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The equivalence principle and weightlessness.


geordief
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6 hours ago, bangstrom said:

The point is that an object floating free in the depths of space is still within the effects of the gravity originating from the sum of all the massive bodies in the universe. This gravity determines our perception of distance and time. There is no place in the universe that is free of gravity

Are we saying the same thing here? (from a recent post of mine on another forum)

 

https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=83313.0

 

I asked there whether the global gravity field may have originated around the time of the BB and has been  gradually metamorphosing ever since.

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5 hours ago, geordief said:

Are we saying the same thing here? (from a recent post of mine on another forum)

 

https://www.thenakedscientists.com/forum/index.php?topic=83313.0

 

I asked there whether the global gravity field may have originated around the time of the BB and has been  gradually metamorphosing ever since.

I think we are saying the same thing. I understand the evolution of the universe as a several billion year emergence from a gravity well with the BB at the very bottom.

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7 hours ago, bangstrom said:

I understand the evolution of the universe as a several billion year emergence from a gravity well with the BB at the very bottom

Yes, and after BB, the universe rises in a gravitational well. This means that the red shift in the spectra of galaxies has not only a Doppler component, but also a gravitational one.

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16 hours ago, bangstrom said:

I think we are saying the same thing. I understand the evolution of the universe as a several billion year emergence from a gravity well with the BB at the very bottom.

The metric which describes large-scale spacetime of the universe does not resemble a ‘gravity well’.

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39 minutes ago, Markus Hanke said:

The metric which describes large-scale spacetime of the universe does not resemble a ‘gravity well’.

That would denote a centre, would it not? So obviously invalid.

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