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i realize this may be a stupid questions...

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This is isn't exactly homework help but I don't know where else to put it.

If A = 1 in this case and B is always = 1. Is it possible to get 1 instead of 0?

 1- A^2/B^2 = 0


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Unclear how you might think so.  Simple substitution yields 1-1/1 which is zero.

Even if you ignore precedence rules and evaluate it as (1-A^2)/B^2 you still get zero.

I can prove that 1 equals 2 using some sleight of hand, but not in the equation you present.

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