can't_think_of_a_name Posted June 23, 2020 Share Posted June 23, 2020 This is isn't exactly homework help but I don't know where else to put it. If A = 1 in this case and B is always = 1. Is it possible to get 1 instead of 0? 1- A^2/B^2 = 0 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Halc Posted June 23, 2020 Share Posted June 23, 2020 Unclear how you might think so. Simple substitution yields 1-1/1 which is zero. Even if you ignore precedence rules and evaluate it as (1-A^2)/B^2 you still get zero. I can prove that 1 equals 2 using some sleight of hand, but not in the equation you present. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
can't_think_of_a_name Posted June 23, 2020 Author Share Posted June 23, 2020 Well I did say it may be a stupid question Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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