Ten oz Posted March 31, 2018 Share Posted March 31, 2018 Taxation without representation is a well worn slogan familiar to most in the western world. Yet throughout the world's democracies and more specifically in the U.S. millions who pay taxes do not have the right to vote. Green card holders, visa holders, and those in the U.S. on deferred action pay taxes yet have no right to vote. Depending of the state U.S. born citizens can be denied their right to vote pending run ins with the law. In Western Democracies what should the standard be? Should paying taxes guarantee you a right to a vote, should a right to a vote be guaranteed regardless of taxation, or should govts be able to restrict voting to tax paying individuals based on which ever caveats they choose? Quote A trip to her local polling place may have earned a Texas woman five years behind bars. Crystal Mason was sentenced to five years in prison this week after she voted in the 2016 election while on parole, according to Dallas ABC affiliate WFAA. Mason was on parole after serving time for a federal tax crime, her lawyer said. http://abcnews.go.com/US/texas-woman-sentenced-years-prison-illegally-voting-2016/story?id=54143848 In Texas a U.S. born and raised citizen is being charged with a crime for voting. She is being charged with voter fraud yet she is one person and cast just one vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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