# Can a force be = to the opposed force and be in ''Motion''

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Yes . According to my observation from a working model; it is only possible under one condition  ,,,and that is < the opposite force must generate it's own acceleration; witch leads to + 2 minus negative 1 = one half of the total force generated by the systeme ,,and further more  +2+3+4+5~minus negative 1 to infinity is possible, but not practical.

the answers to questions from you all  might be difficult  for any one to comprehend. sorry about that .

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2 minutes ago, Roger Dynamic Motion said:

the answers to questions from you all  might be difficult  for any one to comprehend

The entire post is incomprehensible.

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I am sat on a roundabout. By backside is held up by a force which exactly balances my weight.

I'm getting travel-sick because of the very clearly real motion- broadly in a circle.

So, the answer to the question "Can a force be = to the opposed force and be in ''Motion'' is yes.

Strange is right about the post; it's gibberish.

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Look up retrocausality phenomenal

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Just now, Roger Dynamic Motion said:

Look up retrocausality phenomenal

No.

If you can't be bothered to explain it, then you clearly don't think it's important.

If it's not important, I'm not bothering to look it up.

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its up to you

look up inegalites de Bell

Edited by Roger Dynamic Motion
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3 minutes ago, Roger Dynamic Motion said:

its up to you

!

Moderator Note

No, it's not. It's up to you to explain yourself when you start a thread about any topic. If you can't overcome your communication problems, we can't discuss your ideas. Nobody knows what you're talking about, most of the time. Can you fix this, please?

We can't keep asking you to help us understand when you won't take the time and effort to do the most basic job of expressing yourself coherently. If you can increase your efforts we can talk about your topics, but most of your last several posts are just Trash.

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