Jump to content

Can a force be = to the opposed force and be in ''Motion''

Roger Dynamic Motion

Recommended Posts

Yes . According to my observation from a working model; it is only possible under one condition  ,,,and that is < the opposite force must generate it's own acceleration; witch leads to + 2 minus negative 1 = one half of the total force generated by the systeme ,,and further more  +2+3+4+5~minus negative 1 to infinity is possible, but not practical.

the answers to questions from you all  might be difficult  for any one to comprehend. sorry about that .

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I am sat on a roundabout. By backside is held up by a force which exactly balances my weight.

I'm getting travel-sick because of the very clearly real motion- broadly in a circle.

So, the answer to the question "Can a force be = to the opposed force and be in ''Motion'' is yes.

Strange is right about the post; it's gibberish.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

3 minutes ago, Roger Dynamic Motion said:

its up to you 


Moderator Note

No, it's not. It's up to you to explain yourself when you start a thread about any topic. If you can't overcome your communication problems, we can't discuss your ideas. Nobody knows what you're talking about, most of the time. Can you fix this, please?

We can't keep asking you to help us understand when you won't take the time and effort to do the most basic job of expressing yourself coherently. If you can increase your efforts we can talk about your topics, but most of your last several posts are just Trash.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

  • Create New...

Important Information

We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue.