dr. undefined

This might explain a few of the paradoxes surrounding black holes. From the point of view of someone far away from the black hole, it takes an eternity for anything to reach the event horizon. It is often wondered what happens to someone once they fall through the event horizon, what things look like from their perspective. But if the black hole is really just a geometric point blown up to the size of a massive star, then there is nothing inside the black hole. There is no space smaller than a geometric point. The event horizon, therefore, represents the end of space. It takes an eternity for someone falling towards the black hole to reach the event horizon because it takes an eternity to reach the end of space.

There is something smaller than a point. We got Singularity. Event horizon depends on the strength of their respective gravitational fields. Just can't consider an infinitely large field. As in same case as a electric field. A charge which is considered to be a point doesn't have an infinitely large field.

Are special unitary groups as SU(5) symmetrical? Orthogonal groups are symmetrical but are unitary groups too?

Do you agree with the fact that Einstein introduced the curvature tensor taking it 0 to be legit?

Expand [math] e^{\sin x} [/math] as a taylor series at [math] x_{0}=0[/math]. Integrate it between 0 and infinity. When you try to take the limit you'll see.

 

Also. You could just plot the function or think about the fact that the function oscillates sinusoidally between e^-1 and e¹ as 1 and -1 are both the extreme values of sin x.

 

This is all assuming that by "does it terminate?" you mean does the integral from 0 to infinity have a finite value?

So it doesn't have a generalized answer for indefinite integrals?

But you wouldn't calculate the triangle using 0. It is a bit of a weird one. I think it must be [math]i[/math]

that's root of negative 1! How do you conclude about the value 'i'?

Your original question appears to be asking how to construct a uniform distribution over the entire real number line. If that is the case, yes, there is something wrong with your question. A uniform distribution requires a finite interval; the probability is identically zero outside this interval. A uniform distribution with infinite extent doesn't make sense. There are probability distributions such as a Gaussian distribution that do span the entire real number line. None of these is uniform.

You were absolutely correct about the answer sir. Indeed that's true!! Thank you!

Simply, a number divided by zero is 0. This would be because x/2 = y and y*2 = x. So if x has y fractions, then any number put into zero fractions would cancel out the number. Bit hard to understand I think but I think it works.

Edit: I've just realised my error because that would mean that x*0 = y which is wrong. It must be either "i" (imaginary number) or infinity.

Absolutely( for the edited part ofcourse)!!

 

 

10 divided by 2 is 5.

10 divided by 1 is 10.

10 divided by 1/2 is 20.

10 divided by 1/5 is 50.

10 divided by 1/10 is 100.

10 divided by 1/100 is 1000.

10 divided by 1/1000 is 10000.

So the smaller the number it is divided by, the larger the number. If you divide by 0 then the answer is infinity.

doesn't that possibly violate the the simple basic laws of mathematics? if x/y = z then yz =x? I mean again if we calculate the tangent of an angle 90? A ratio of infinity? At that ratio the triangle wouldn't even exist!

Dynamics means a lot of things. You will have to be much more specific with your question.

Is it possible to unify Newtonian Dynamics?

Integration of e^sinx with respect to x. Do you think it ever terminates?

Can anyone help me by a generalized equation for the time period of all types of pendulums?

Do you think that dynamics as a whole can be unified?

If you take the limit of 1/x as x approaches infinity, you get zero. f(x)=1/x for x being infinity doesn't work because infinity isn't a number.

 

If you take the limit of 1/x as x approaches 0, you don't get an answer because the left and right limits do not match. f(x)=1/x for f(0) is undefined.

I got you sir but is there anything wrong with my question? I mean as a calculating device human brain selects a number so is the probability of calculating a number undefined for human brain?

And distance is what a ruler measures. We have no more basic definition of distance than we have of time. But for some reason people are more comfortable with rulers than with clocks. Nobody seems to ask what distance is.

I think people do that for they have a least satisfactory answer to define it but time doesn't have such a definition.

Is the quantity 1/infinity undefined? I mean the probability of selecting a number from the infinite series of whole numbers? Is it undefined?

In physics, time is what is measured by a clock.

 

Asking what time is is a question of metaphysics.

That's what I am asking Sir! People don't or can't define it as under the grounds of QM or GR at a large order. While asking it under grounds of metaphysics is it the best answer to be defining it as if the storage of memories and stuff?

Can anyone quietly elucidate what is time? I mean while defining Time people in general relate them to be just a measure of something. That "something" can't be defined by them!