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Status Replies posted by John
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I have finally made a break through on the Collatz conjecture. Although I still cannot prove the conjecture, my work has allowed me to create two new challenges, one which will be the toughest one yet... I'll have them posted as soon as I can find the time to write them up.
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I have finally made a break through on the Collatz conjecture. Although I still cannot prove the conjecture, my work has allowed me to create two new challenges, one which will be the toughest one yet... I'll have them posted as soon as I can find the time to write them up.
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I have finally made a break through on the Collatz conjecture. Although I still cannot prove the conjecture, my work has allowed me to create two new challenges, one which will be the toughest one yet... I'll have them posted as soon as I can find the time to write them up.
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So you iterate through the natural numbers, and for each natural number N, the equation takes that and outputs all odd numbers whose sequences contain exactly N iterations of the odd rule, along with the powers of 2 involved in traveling from one odd number in the sequence to another?
So for N = 1, we have {1, 5, 21, 85, 341...}, or [(4^n) - 1]/3 for all natural numbers n. I'm eager to see how the equation produces/presents its output.
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I have finally made a break through on the Collatz conjecture. Although I still cannot prove the conjecture, my work has allowed me to create two new challenges, one which will be the toughest one yet... I'll have them posted as soon as I can find the time to write them up.
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Yeah, it seemed like the kind of thing you'd have realized fairly quickly, but I decided to simply edit rather than delete just in case. After all, it's easy to miss the trees for the forest sometimes.
So just so I'm clear here, you're developing a formula that, given an odd input c, should generate all the numbers that reduce to 1 using n/2 for evens and cn+1 for odds along the sequence? Or what?
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I have finally made a break through on the Collatz conjecture. Although I still cannot prove the conjecture, my work has allowed me to create two new challenges, one which will be the toughest one yet... I'll have them posted as soon as I can find the time to write them up.
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The 1n+1 case is trivially true, since (n+1)/2 < n except for the case n = 1. So you can probably take that as given and move on to looking at the relationships between various coefficients.
Edit: Unless you mean you're trying to prove it using the equation you're developing, in which case don't mind me.
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How old is science forums?
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I just felt like posting something.
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I just felt like posting something.
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'The Elegant Universe' (Brian Greene). Great book.
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So what should I get for an intro to geometry?
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A man said, "You're mad." I said, "Mad?" He said, "Yes." I said, "Who?" He said, "You." I said, "Me?" He said, "Yes." I said, "Oh..."