IndianScientist

9 minutes ago, John Cuthber said:

You seem to have it the wrong way round.

41 minutes ago, IndianScientist said:

 

Isotopes are atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass number . This means that they differ in their physical properties(since the protons And electrons are same in number And neutrons are different, and the neutrons are the subatomic particles which influence the physical properties of an element ) And we generally refer the physical properties as melting and boiling point, electrical conductivity , physical state ,etc. But what are actually these physical properties

 

 

I mentioned in my query that isotopes have different no. of neutrons. I asked what physical properties do they differ in? Do they ast all differ in physical properties?

Hello to any wonderful scientist reading this,this might be and can be a really foolish doubt (because of which I seek my deepest apologies for posting in a intellectual and scientifically tempered community,where many of you are also too busy to handle such queries) but this is really bothering me lately .

Isotopes are atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass number . This means that they differ in their physical properties(since the protons And electrons are same in number And neutrons are different, and the neutrons are the subatomic particles which influence the physical properties of an element ) And we generally refer the physical properties as melting and boiling point, electrical conductivity , physical state ,etc. But what are actually these physical properties? Will liquid oxygen and gaseous oxygen be considered Isotopes (since the physical property by virtue of which they differ is the physical state) . They can not be considered isotopes because the difference in physical state was caused by the difference of the INTERMOLECULAR space and force and so ATOMS have nothing to do with it. Also , Electrical conductivity depends on the presence of free electrons and since no. of electrons are same in isotope , the neutrons (by virtue of which the isotopes differ) have nothing to contribute towards electrical conductivity. So what are these physical properties and how do they differ in isotopes.

Recently on a computational engine called wolframalpha, by accident I put this equation for a solution( I wanted a soln of another eqn). But this mistake is not so anymore, it showed me that almost by every mean mathematics can be manipulated. 

Anyways, the engine showed there exists no soln . for this. 

I tried this on few others and still got the same. I can't understand this.

-1 and 1 both give 1 when multiplied by itself. No square of a number can be in negative form.

So sqrt(x)=-1 should have the solution as 1. 

Can anyone explain this. 

Also, I searched this on certain sites and they explained with graphs of complex numbers containing parabola , hyperbola etc.  I have not learnt calculus yet. 

If anyone can explain this without calculus elaborately , I will be grateful 

Best wishes

1 hour ago, studiot said:

see you are still on line so I will try to

@studiot I actually was not online at the time you posted this.  I just saw this Now. Usually I keep these type of tabs open in the device and so that's why probably it was showing.

I am now gradually getting a feel of it.

I have tried to draw the diagram of your scenario as elaborately as possible . Though I did not understand this analogy clearly. It would be helpful if you elaborate a little more. But I have climbed up to the nodes of the branches of the tree , I just need to climb to the apex of the shoot.😁

If you elaborate the diagram of my case (with your explanation) a little more, I will feel like a book.

I can't describe anything in words but thanks for the help

On 1/29/2021 at 3:27 PM, studiot said:

Simply put the man in the waggon has nothing to push against but the man outside pushes against the ground.

Im extremely sorry for late reply @studiot and @Ghideon as I was preparing for social science class test. When the man is struggling to push the wagon, he is pushing on a wall  of the wagon. But two ideas then immediately come to mind:

1. When the man is pushing from outside the wagon, he pushes the ground and the horizontal component of the reaction force by the ground{if I am correct(because application of vectors in walking of a man is taught one grade ahead of me and I studied it beforehand😁)} propels the man forward. Let's say the net force applied by the man is F. There will be accelaration in the system if the unbalanced forced  is sufficient(pls correct me of any mistakes)

2. @Ghideon I can in a way get a sense of what you say but can't fully understand the 'physico-mathematical cause'(😁). The man is inside the wagon and the man is diagonally pushing on the floor of the wagon. The horizontal component of reaction by the floor should propel him forward and he must be applying a very same net force F on the wall. 

AS I have told, I can get a  sense of what is happening in the second case , but if I am not acting immature, the question reverses, why is motion possible in the 1st case. 

A little more detailed explanation, you'll all be geniuses because a darn fool like me is making simple things complicated and you'll be the ones who can be making the complex thing simple.... That's what the definition of genius is....😁😂.

Jokes apart, please elaborate a little more. I thank you all for your help.

Best Wishes

A science aspirant and lover from India

I don't know if this is a foolish question or a decent one, I don't know if there is any official subjective answer to this, this query is popping in my mind and lately I can't stop myself from thinking what the scientific or 'physical' cause might be....

Please don't mind if it is a question of  a darn fool cause I am only a high schooler from India.              XD

Suppose a strong  man of mass M is pushing a wagon with a force F ,which contains load of same mass M. His force overcomes the static friction and acceleration is caused in the system of the load and a wagon and it moves. 

But consider a case, where the man of mass M is standing in the wagon(in place of load of mass M) and he applies the same force F. The wagon does not move. Whatever mass of the man is and how brute the force he applies, there is no acceleration in the system. Thinking as  a Layman, this is simple. But what is the theoritical physics behind this?

 First I thought that the  weight of the man acting downward  is restricting any acceleration, but it is not the case because the man can push the wagon which is containing a loaf of his same mass exerting the same weight , if he has the strength.

If anyone guides about the correct physics behind this, I will be grateful to that person. Because of this query , I sometimes lose my atten on other subjects.

My drawing is not very good but attached is a rough diagram of the two scenarios

Best wishes

A science aspirant and lover from India 

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