36grit Posted April 21, 2016 Share Posted April 21, 2016 Anything divided by itself equals one, except zero and Pi. But Pi requires a time of division differential. To divide it is to find the velocity of two infinite fields. It is to say that Pi at time axis 1, divided by Pi at time axis two, equals the current time. It is what is relative between the time dilatations, that exist as particles within the infinite fields of electro-magnetic positive and negative. Just a thought. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
StringJunky Posted April 21, 2016 Share Posted April 21, 2016 And so it shall remain. Anything divided by itself equals one, except zero and Pi. But Pi requires a time of division differential. To divide it is to find the velocity of two infinite fields. It is to say that Pi at time axis 1, divided by Pi at time axis two, equals the current time. It is what is relative between the time dilatations, that exist as particles within the infinite fields of electro-magnetic positive and negative. Just a thought. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
John Cuthber Posted April 21, 2016 Share Posted April 21, 2016 "Anything divided by itself equals one, except zero and Pi." No: pi/pi is 1 as well. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
imatfaal Posted April 21, 2016 Share Posted April 21, 2016 ! Moderator Note I think as the opening statement is false and the rest of the post is word salad that this thread will be locked. This is a philosophy sub-forum - not a "make stuff up as you go along" sub-forum 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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