Let
and
be integers such that the set
is finite. Prove that n = 1.The "official" solution is the ugliest thing I've ever seen, and so incomprehensible that even my professors didn't understand it. My gut was/is telling me that there was a simpler solution, so I've been trying to find one.
I've gotten to the point where all I have to do is prove that the set
is finite, ie. that there are infinitely many numbers
that cannot be expressed as
for a given k and some integers x, y. And I'm stuck. The only hunch I have is that c will be dependent on k, but other than that, I have nothing. I've been clueless for a week or so now, so I'd really appreciate any ideas any of you might have.
This post has been edited by Shadow: 23 November 2011 - 01:58 PM

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