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just a quick one...


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Hey can i ask if my answers to this question are correct...?

 

a) yes, because f'(x) = 0 at x = 0

b) yes, because there exists a tangent line at x = 0 (because of part a) and the concavity is of a different sign on both sides of x = 0 (i.e. f''(x) is -ve one left and +ve on right)

c) no it is not true, because f''(x) = 2 for all real x in the domain

d) no, as can been seen in this question

 

 

Sarah

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