Treadstone
October 7th, 2004, 1:21 PM
had an idea in class the the other day...feel free to add on or modify for whatever, just a rabbit trail of thought....
Let A = { pi , 2^(1/2) }
A only contains 2 items and so Card(A) = 2 => there exists a bijective function from A to the natural numbers of order 2 => A is finite...probably didnt need to prove it but there it is.
Write the items in A as sets themselfs as such
pi = {3, 1, 4, 1, 5, 9, ... }
2^(1/2) = { 1, 4, 1, 4, 2, 1, ... }
So can A be rewritten as A = { {3 1 4 1 5 9...} , {1 4 1 4 2 1...} } ?
Would this imply that A has an infinite number of things dispite that it is a finite set? Or is it just my notation and how i'm defining things?
Any interesting ideas on where i could go from here?
Let A = { pi , 2^(1/2) }
A only contains 2 items and so Card(A) = 2 => there exists a bijective function from A to the natural numbers of order 2 => A is finite...probably didnt need to prove it but there it is.
Write the items in A as sets themselfs as such
pi = {3, 1, 4, 1, 5, 9, ... }
2^(1/2) = { 1, 4, 1, 4, 2, 1, ... }
So can A be rewritten as A = { {3 1 4 1 5 9...} , {1 4 1 4 2 1...} } ?
Would this imply that A has an infinite number of things dispite that it is a finite set? Or is it just my notation and how i'm defining things?
Any interesting ideas on where i could go from here?